Daily Mock Test – 04 August 2025 – Mumkin Hai IAS Coaching

🧠 Daily UPSC Mock Test – 04 august 2025

Welcome aspirants! This is your Daily Practice Quiz consisting of 30 high-quality questions to strengthen your UPSC Prelims preparation.

📘 Subjects: Polity, Economy, History, Environment, S&T, Current Affairs
⏱️ Time Limit: 30 Minutes
📝 Difficulty Level: UPSC Prelims Standard

💡 Tip: Read all options carefully, eliminate smartly, and revise your mistakes from the explanations.

👇 Start Your Test 👇

Results

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#1. The concept of ‘Green GDP’ includes adjustment for which factor?

Inflation

Environmental degradation

FDI inflows

Fiscal deficit

➡️ Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:
Green GDP is GDP adjusted for environmental degradation and resource depletion. It gives a more sustainable picture of national progress, highlighting ecological costs of growth.

Consider the following species and their IUCN status:

Great Indian Bustard – Critically Endangered
Gangetic Dolphin – Endangered
Snow Leopard – Vulnerable
Red Panda – Near Threatened

#2. Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: 1) 1, 2 and 3 only
Red Panda is also Endangered, not Near Threatened.

#3. Which organization releases the ‘World Economic Outlook’ report?

World Bank

IMF

WTO

OECD

➡️ Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO) report, providing analysis of global economic trends and forecasts. It is a key source for UPSC current affairs.

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Dance Form	Associated Region
Sattriya	Assam
Chhau	Rajasthan
Thang Ta	Manipur
Kuchipudi	Tamil Nadu

#4. Select the correct pairs:

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: 2) 1 and 3 only
Chhau – Odisha/Jharkhand/West Bengal; Kuchipudi – Andhra Pradesh.

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:

It is a constitutional body under Article 324.
It has the power to disqualify a candidate.
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President.

#5. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

All of the above

Answer: 2) 1 and 3 only
(Note: Disqualification is decided by the President based on EC’s advice.)

#6. In the context of genetics, what does CRISPR-Cas9 technology allow scientists to do?

Sequence human genome faster

Edit parts of the genome by removing, adding, or altering sections of the DNA

Clone cells using nanotechnology

Measure mutations in radioactive environments

Answer: 2) Edit parts of the genome by removing, adding, or altering sections of the DNA

With reference to ancient Indian architecture, consider the following statements:

Chaitya halls were used for congregational worship in early Buddhism.
Stupas were originally burial mounds and later became symbolic structures.
Dravidian temple architecture began in the post-Mauryan period.

#7. Which of the statements is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

All of the above

Answer: 1) 1 and 2 only
Dravidian style emerged later under Pallavas (post-Gupta period).

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), consider the following statements:

Every account holder under PMJDY gets a RuPay debit card.
Overdraft facility is available only after six months of satisfactory operation.
PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

#8. Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer: 4) 1, 2 and 3

#9. Which of the following technologies is most relevant for developing pest-resistant transgenic crops?

RNA interference (RNAi)

CRISPR-Cas9

Recombinant DNA Technology

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

Answer: 1) RNA interference (RNAi)
Used in Bt brinjal, GM cotton to silence specific pest genes.

Consider the following multilateral groupings:

G20
BRICS
QUAD
SCO

#10. Which of the above has no permanent secretariat?

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

All of the above

Answer: 1) 1, 2 and 3 only
SCO has a permanent secretariat in Beijing.

Consider the following statements regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP):

MSP is announced by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
MSP is legally enforceable and farmers must be paid at least that amount.
MSP is announced for both Kharif and Rabi crops.

#11. Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

All of the above

Answer: 3) 1 and 3 only
(MSP is not legally enforceable in India.)

#12. The power of the Supreme Court to declare a law unconstitutional derives from which of the following?

Article 131

Article 142

Article 13

Article 32

Answer: 3) Article 13
It declares that laws violating Fundamental Rights are void.

#13. Which of the following constitutional amendments lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?

42nd Amendment

44th Amendment

61st Amendment

52nd Amendment

Answer: 3) 61st Amendment

#14. With reference to the Indian Freedom Struggle, which one of the following statements is correct?

The Cabinet Mission arrived in India in 1944.

The Cripps Mission recommended the creation of Pakistan.

The Quit India Movement was launched after the failure of the Cripps Mission.

The Simon Commission was welcomed by the Congress.

Answer: 3) The Quit India Movement was launched after the failure of the Cripps Mission.

#15. The Sakhalin-1 project, in which ONGC Videsh had investment, is located in:

Iran

Russia

Kazakhstan

Indonesia

Answer: 2) Russia
It’s an oil and gas project in the Russian Far East.

#16. Which scheme is related to promotion of electric mobility in India?

PM-KUSUM

FAME II

UDAN

PM Gati Shakti

➡️ Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:
FAME II (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles) is a central scheme aimed at promoting EV adoption and reducing dependence on fossil fuels.

#17. Which of the following constitutional doctrines has no explicit mention in the Constitution but has evolved through judicial interpretation?

Rule of Law

Doctrine of Pleasure

Separation of Powers

Basic Structure Doctrine

Answer: 4) Basic Structure Doctrine
Propounded in Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973); not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

#18. In Union Budget 2024-25, which sector received the highest capital allocation?

Defence

Health

Transport

Education

➡️ Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:
The Transport sector, particularly infrastructure (highways, railways, logistics), received the highest capital expenditure in the 2024–25 Union Budget, aligning with the PM Gati Shakti plan and infra-led growth strategy.

#19. The term ‘Western Disturbances’, crucial for Indian winter crops, originates from:

Arabian Desert

Mediterranean region

Tibetan Plateau

East African highlands

Answer: 2) Mediterranean region
They are extra-tropical storms that bring winter rain to north India.

#20. Which of the following best defines the term ‘Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)’ in Indian banking regulation?

A framework for reducing Non-Performing Assets through recapitalization

A process to merge weak banks with stronger public sector banks

RBI’s mechanism to monitor and impose restrictions on weak banks

A regulatory mandate to shut down consistently loss-making banks

Answer: 3) RBI’s mechanism to monitor and impose restrictions on weak banks
Triggered when thresholds of CRAR, NPA, and ROA are breached.

Consider the following powers of the President of India:

Sending back an advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
Declaring national emergency without cabinet recommendation
Vetoing a constitutional amendment bill

#21. Which of the above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

None

Answer: 1) 1 only
National emergency requires cabinet approval; constitutional amendments cannot be vetoed.

#22. Which of the following best describes the concept of Quantum Supremacy?

A quantum computer performing a task impossible for classical computers in a reasonable tim

A computer system that can clone human consciousness

A technique for faster satellite-based internet

A data encryption system that uses quantum particles

Answer: 1) A quantum computer performing a task impossible for classical computers in a reasonable time
Google first claimed quantum supremacy in 2019 using Sycamore processor.

Consider the following with reference to the FRBM Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act):

It sets a numerical target for fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.
It mandates elimination of primary deficit.
The Act can be suspended during national security crises.

#23. Which of the above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer: 2) 1 and 3 only
FRBM does not require primary deficit to be zero. Clauses allow suspension in emergencies.

#24. Which Indian initiative was launched to boost semiconductor manufacturing?

Digital India Mission

Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme

Make in India 2.0

Startup India 3.0

➡️ Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:
The PLI Scheme has specific incentives for semiconductors and display manufacturing, attracting firms like Micron and Foxconn to invest in India.

The “Permanent Settlement” introduced by Lord Cornwallis had which of the following consequences?

Emergence of absentee landlordism
Decline of traditional village panchayats
Stagnation in agricultural productivity

#25. Select the correct code:

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer: 4) 1, 2 and 3
The zamindari system led to rent exploitation, disempowering village institutions and reducing incentives for investment in agriculture.

#26. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) as defined in G20 frameworks?

CoWIN

Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)

Bharat BillPay

BharatNet

Answer: 4) BharatNet
BharatNet is physical broadband infra, not a digital service platform.

#27. Which of the following best explains the concept of ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in macroeconomics?

Increase in private investment due to government subsidies

Reduction in private investment due to high government borrowing

Increase in savings due to high interest rates

Decline in exports due to currency appreciation

Answer: 2) Reduction in private investment due to high government borrowing
High fiscal deficits raise interest rates, discouraging private investment.

#28. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Balance on Current Account?

It includes capital inflows like FDI and FPI

It represents the gap between government revenue and expenditure

It is the sum of trade balance, net income, and net transfers

It is calculated by RBI for internal monetary policy adjustments

Answer: 3) It is the sum of trade balance, net income, and net transfers
Part of Balance of Payments (BoP); excludes capital account.

#29. What is the revised fiscal deficit target for India in FY 2024-25?

5.1% of GDP

6.8% of GDP

5.8% of GDP

4.5% of GDP

➡️ Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:
The government set the fiscal deficit target at 5.1% of GDP for FY 2024–25, continuing its path toward fiscal consolidation, down from previous highs during the pandemic years.

#30. Which country is India’s largest trading partner as of 2024?

China

USA

UAE

Germany

➡️ Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:
According to 2024 data from the Ministry of Commerce, the United States has continued to be India’s largest trading partner, overtaking China in recent years, due to increasing exports and strategic trade ties.

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