🧠 Daily UPSC Mock Test – 04 august 2025
Welcome aspirants! This is your Daily Practice Quiz consisting of 30 high-quality questions to strengthen your UPSC Prelims preparation.
- 📘 Subjects: Polity, Economy, History, Environment, S&T, Current Affairs
- ⏱️ Time Limit: 30 Minutes
- 📝 Difficulty Level: UPSC Prelims Standard
💡 Tip: Read all options carefully, eliminate smartly, and revise your mistakes from the explanations.
👇 Start Your Test 👇
Results
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#1. Which of the following best describes the concept of Quantum Supremacy?
Answer: 1) A quantum computer performing a task impossible for classical computers in a reasonable time
Google first claimed quantum supremacy in 2019 using Sycamore processor.
Which of the following are considered greenhouse gases under the Kyoto Protocol?
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Carbon dioxide
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Methane
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Nitrous oxide
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Sulphur hexafluoride
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Water vapor
#2. Select the correct answer using the code below:
Answer: 2) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(Water vapor is not listed under Kyoto Protocol GHGs.)
#3. Which country is India’s largest trading partner as of 2024?
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
According to 2024 data from the Ministry of Commerce, the United States has continued to be India’s largest trading partner, overtaking China in recent years, due to increasing exports and strategic trade ties.
#4. The Sakhalin-1 project, in which ONGC Videsh had investment, is located in:
Answer: 2) Russia
It’s an oil and gas project in the Russian Far East.
Consider the following international environmental conventions:
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Minamata Convention
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Basel Convention
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Cartagena Protocol
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Ramsar Convention
#5. Which of the above are legally binding on signatory countries?
Answer: 1) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ramsar is not legally binding, though widely followed.
#6. Which organization releases the ‘World Economic Outlook’ report?
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO) report, providing analysis of global economic trends and forecasts. It is a key source for UPSC current affairs.
#7. The concept of ‘Green GDP’ includes adjustment for which factor?
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Green GDP is GDP adjusted for environmental degradation and resource depletion. It gives a more sustainable picture of national progress, highlighting ecological costs of growth.
Consider the following statements regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP):
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MSP is announced by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
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MSP is legally enforceable and farmers must be paid at least that amount.
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MSP is announced for both Kharif and Rabi crops.
#8. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer: 3) 1 and 3 only
(MSP is not legally enforceable in India.)
#9. What is the revised fiscal deficit target for India in FY 2024-25?
➡️ Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
The government set the fiscal deficit target at 5.1% of GDP for FY 2024–25, continuing its path toward fiscal consolidation, down from previous highs during the pandemic years.
#10. The term ‘Western Disturbances’, crucial for Indian winter crops, originates from:
Answer: 2) Mediterranean region
They are extra-tropical storms that bring winter rain to north India.
The “Permanent Settlement” introduced by Lord Cornwallis had which of the following consequences?
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Emergence of absentee landlordism
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Decline of traditional village panchayats
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Stagnation in agricultural productivity
#11. Select the correct code:
Answer: 4) 1, 2 and 3
The zamindari system led to rent exploitation, disempowering village institutions and reducing incentives for investment in agriculture.
#12. In the context of genetics, what does CRISPR-Cas9 technology allow scientists to do?
Answer: 2) Edit parts of the genome by removing, adding, or altering sections of the DNA
#13. Which of the following sectors is NOT covered under the PLI Scheme?
➡️ Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Leather is not among the key sectors selected for PLI. The scheme focuses on high-potential sectors like pharma, telecom, electronics, textiles, and auto components.
#14. Which Indian initiative was launched to boost semiconductor manufacturing?
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The PLI Scheme has specific incentives for semiconductors and display manufacturing, attracting firms like Micron and Foxconn to invest in India.
#15. Which of the following best explains the concept of ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in macroeconomics?
Answer: 2) Reduction in private investment due to high government borrowing
High fiscal deficits raise interest rates, discouraging private investment.
Consider the following powers of the President of India:
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Sending back an advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
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Declaring national emergency without cabinet recommendation
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Vetoing a constitutional amendment bill
#16. Which of the above is/are correct?
Answer: 1) 1 only
National emergency requires cabinet approval; constitutional amendments cannot be vetoed.
#17. Which of the following constitutional doctrines has no explicit mention in the Constitution but has evolved through judicial interpretation?
Answer: 4) Basic Structure Doctrine
Propounded in Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973); not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the following Constitution Amendments have strengthened the concept of ‘Cooperative Federalism’ in India?
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42nd Amendment
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73rd Amendment
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101st Amendment
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44th Amendment
#18. Select the correct code:
Answer: 1) 2 and 3 only
73rd – Panchayats; 101st – GST; both promote federal cooperation.
#19. Which of the following constitutional amendments lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?
Answer: 3) 61st Amendment
#20. Which scheme is related to promotion of electric mobility in India?
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
FAME II (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles) is a central scheme aimed at promoting EV adoption and reducing dependence on fossil fuels.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), consider the following statements:
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Every account holder under PMJDY gets a RuPay debit card.
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Overdraft facility is available only after six months of satisfactory operation.
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PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
#21. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer: 4) 1, 2 and 3
#22. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) as defined in G20 frameworks?
Answer: 4) BharatNet
BharatNet is physical broadband infra, not a digital service platform.
Consider the following multilateral groupings:
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G20
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BRICS
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QUAD
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SCO
#23. Which of the above has no permanent secretariat?
Answer: 1) 1, 2 and 3 only
SCO has a permanent secretariat in Beijing.
#24. The power of the Supreme Court to declare a law unconstitutional derives from which of the following?
Answer: 3) Article 13
It declares that laws violating Fundamental Rights are void.
#25. Which entity manages the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP)?
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Finance conceptualized the National Monetisation Pipeline, aimed at leasing public assets like highways, railways, and power lines to generate revenue.
#26. Which of the following best defines the term ‘Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)’ in Indian banking regulation?
Answer: 3) RBI’s mechanism to monitor and impose restrictions on weak banks
Triggered when thresholds of CRAR, NPA, and ROA are breached.
Consider the following with reference to the FRBM Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act):
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It sets a numerical target for fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.
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It mandates elimination of primary deficit.
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The Act can be suspended during national security crises.
#27. Which of the above are correct?
Answer: 2) 1 and 3 only
FRBM does not require primary deficit to be zero. Clauses allow suspension in emergencies.
#28. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Balance on Current Account?
Answer: 3) It is the sum of trade balance, net income, and net transfers
Part of Balance of Payments (BoP); excludes capital account.
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:
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It is a constitutional body under Article 324.
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It has the power to disqualify a candidate.
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The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President.
#29. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: 2) 1 and 3 only
(Note: Disqualification is decided by the President based on EC’s advice.)
#30. Which rating agency downgraded global growth forecast for 2024 citing inflation?
➡️ Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
In early 2024, Moody’s revised global growth projections downward due to persistent inflation, geopolitical tensions, and tightening monetary conditions.