🎯 Mock Test Series – I
Practice like a topper! This full-length UPSC Mock Test will test your knowledge, accuracy, and time management skills.
- 📘 Subjects: Polity, Economy, History, Geography, Environment, S&T, Current Affairs
- ⏱️ Time Limit: 2 Hours
- 📝 Total Questions: 100
- ⚡ Difficulty: Moderate to Tough
Results
HD Quiz powered by harmonic design
River – Origin
-
Godavari – Nasik Hills
-
Krishna – Mahabaleshwar
-
Mahanadi – Amarkantak Plateau
-
Narmada – Satpura Range
#1. Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
Answer: D
Explanation: Godavari originates from Trimbak plateau near Nasik (correct), Krishna from Mahabaleshwar (correct), but Mahanadi originates from Sihawa Hills (not Amarkantak), and Narmada originates from Amarkantak Plateau, not Satpura.
#2. The “Prayag Prashasti” inscription provides details about which ruler?
✅ Correct Answer: c) Samudragupta
💡 Explanation:
The Prayag Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription) was written by Harisena, the court poet of Samudragupta, and praises his military conquests. It is an important source of Gupta-era history.
#3. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding CRISPR technology?
-
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
-
69th Amendment – Creation of National Capital Territory of Delhi
-
73rd Amendment – Panchayati Raj Institutions
-
74th Amendment – Cooperative Societies
#4. Options:
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
74th = Urban Local Bodies, not cooperatives (97th was for cooperatives).
#5. Which is the longest river in India?
Answer: C
Explanation: Ganga is the longest river within India.
#6. The ‘Ryotwari System’ of land revenue was introduced by:
Answer: B
Explanation: Thomas Munro introduced it in Madras Presidency.
#7. In the context of Indian economy, which of the following best explains ‘Stagflation’?
Which of the following rivers flow into the Bay of Bengal?
-
Godavari
-
Mahanadi
-
Narmada
-
Krishna
#8. Select the correct code:
Answer: 2) 1, 2 and 4 only
(Narmada flows into the Arabian Sea.)
#9. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Servants of India Society’?
Answer: B
Explanation: Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded it in 1905 to promote education and social reform.
#10. ‘Liquidity trap’ refers to:
Answer: B. People hoard cash even at low interest rates
👉 Keynesian concept: monetary policy ineffective.
#11. Which is NOT a gene-editing technology?
Answer: D. PCR
PCR amplifies DNA, not edits it.
#12. Which of the following best defines the term ‘Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)’ in Indian banking regulation?
Answer: 3) RBI’s mechanism to monitor and impose restrictions on weak banks
Triggered when thresholds of CRAR, NPA, and ROA are breached.
#13. Which of the following methods is NOT commonly used in grassland bird surveys?
#14. Which Indian state has launched the ‘Green Hydrogen Valley’ initiative in 2025?
✅ Correct Answer: 1. Gujarat
Explanation:
-
1. Gujarat → ✔ Announced major clean hydrogen initiative with global firms.
-
2. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan → ❌ While active in renewable energy, not yet launched such initiative.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can allow a ‘Point of Order’ when:
-
It relates to breach of Parliamentary privilege
-
It is based on rules or constitutional provisions
-
It is related to ongoing legislative debate
-
It seeks to raise a new discussion point
#15. Select the correct option:
✅ Explanation:
-
A Point of Order can be raised when a Member believes the rules are being violated.
-
It must be based on Rules of Procedure or Constitutional provisions (not for general political issues).
-
It may relate to breach of parliamentary privileges or deviation from procedure.
The “Permanent Settlement” introduced by Lord Cornwallis had which of the following consequences?
-
Emergence of absentee landlordism
-
Decline of traditional village panchayats
-
Stagnation in agricultural productivity
#16. Select the correct code:
Answer: 4) 1, 2 and 3
The zamindari system led to rent exploitation, disempowering village institutions and reducing incentives for investment in agriculture.
#17. What could be a potential impact if India accepts restrictive IPR clauses in the FTA?
🟩 Answer: 2
📝 Explanation: India is known as the “pharmacy of the Global South.” Restrictive IPRs can hinder its ability to supply affordable generics to developing nations.
Environment – Global Plastics Treaty (June 2025)
#18. Which of the following is true regarding the Global Plastics Treaty draft adopted in Paris (June 2025)?
Correct Answer: ✅ C. It aims to eliminate plastic pollution by 2040
📘 Explanation:
-
The Global Plastics Treaty draft, discussed in Paris (June 2025), aims for complete elimination of plastic pollution by 2040.
-
❌ It is intended to be universally binding, not just for developed nations.
-
❌ India did not opt out; it raised concerns about funding & tech transfer but remains engaged.
-
❌ It was negotiated under the UNEP, not UNFCCC.
With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:
-
A fall in exchange rate improves the trade balance immediately due to cheaper exports.
-
Depreciation of the rupee always leads to inflation in India.
-
Current Account Deficit (CAD) is financed through capital inflows.
#19. Which of the above is/are correct?
Answer: C
Explanation: The J-curve effect means trade balance worsens initially. Depreciation doesn’t always lead to inflation. CAD is financed via capital account.
#20. Which recent initiative aims to digitize and integrate India’s logistics sector?
#21. The ‘PM Gati Shakti Master Plan’ focuses on:
National Master Plan to coordinate infrastructure projects for faster execution.
#22. The term ‘Hawkish stance’ is often seen in monetary policy discussions. It refers to:
Correct Answer: 3
Hawkish stance = Favoring high interest rates to curb inflation.
#23. Which of the following statements is correct about the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)?
Answer: B
Explanation: MSF allows scheduled commercial banks to borrow overnight from RBI at repo rate + 1%.
Which of the following statements about India’s critical minerals policy are correct?
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership.
II. India is rich in all critical minerals.
III. MMDR Act was amended to allow Centre to auction critical minerals.
#24. Choose the correct answer:
✅ Correct Answer: 3
🧠 Explanation: India joined the international Minerals Security Partnership. The MMDR Act (1957) was amended in 2023 to give the Centre exclusive auction rights. But India is not rich in all critical minerals, so II is incorrect.
#25. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)?
➡️ Answer: 2
🧾 Explanation: The Fourth Schedule specifies allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
#26. The National Green Tribunal was established in India under which of the following Acts?
✅ Correct Answer: 2. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
📘 Explanation:
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was created in 2010 via a separate Act passed by Parliament — the NGT Act, 2010.
It’s a special environmental court for speedy disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation.
#27. Theme of India’s G20 Presidency (2023) was:
Answer: A. Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam – One Earth, One Family, One Future
Highlighted global unity and sustainability.
#28. The ‘Rule of Law’ is most closely associated with which constitutional feature in India?
✅ Answer: 3
Explanation: Rule of law = everyone is equal under the law → Article 14.
#29. Which agency in India is primarily responsible for managing and reducing risks from GLOF events?
The NDMA is the main agency in India that plans and coordinates efforts to reduce risks from GLOF events, including early warning systems, risk mapping, and disaster preparedness in vulnerable regions like the Himalayas.
#30. Which country recently joined BRICS in 2024?
Saudi Arabia joined BRICS in 2024, expanding the group’s influence in global energy markets.
#31. ‘Chandrayaan-3’ successfully landed near which lunar region?
Answer: B
Explanation: It landed near Moon’s South Pole.
Fly ash from thermal power plants can be used in:
-
Cement industry
-
Road construction
-
Agriculture
#32. Select the correct option:
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Fly ash is multipurpose: cement, roads, and soil conditioning.
#33. What is the revised fiscal deficit target for India in FY 2024-25?
➡️ Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
The government set the fiscal deficit target at 5.1% of GDP for FY 2024–25, continuing its path toward fiscal consolidation, down from previous highs during the pandemic years.
#34. The term ‘LiDAR’ technology is primarily used for:
Ans: B – Terrain mapping and surveying.
Which of the following can lead to an appreciation of Indian Rupee?
-
Rising FDI inflows
-
Higher crude oil imports
-
Increase in interest rates by RBI
#35. Choose the correct answer:
-
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
FDI inflows and higher interest rates attract foreign capital → stronger rupee. But oil imports increase forex demand, weakening rupee.
#36. The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 added which languages to the Eighth Schedule?
Answer: D. All of the above
Bodo, Maithili, Santhali, and Dogri were added to the Eighth Schedule.
#37. The term “2+2 Dialogue”, often seen in news, refers to:
Answer: 3) Strategic dialogue involving Foreign and Defence Ministers of two countries
#38. The Phillips Curve illustrates the relationship between:
-
➡️ Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
The Phillips Curve shows an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment in the short run. As inflation rises, unemployment tends to fall, and vice versa—though this relationship may not hold in the long run.
#39. The ‘Global Environment Facility’ (GEF) was established during:
Answer: A
Explanation: GEF was launched during the 1992 Rio Earth Summi
#40. Which of the following best describes the concept of Quantum Supremacy?
Answer: 1) A quantum computer performing a task impossible for classical computers in a reasonable time
Google first claimed quantum supremacy in 2019 using Sycamore processor.
#41. Which of the following Acts was passed after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and was condemned by nationalists as ‘draconian’?
The Rowlatt Act (1919) was passed after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. It allowed the British to arrest Indians without trial, leading to widespread protests. Nationalists called it “draconian”, and Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in response.
Other options:
-
Arms Act (1878) – Restricted Indians from owning weapons.
-
Ilbert Bill (1883) – Proposed Indian judges could try Europeans (failed).
-
Pitt’s India Act (1784) – Strengthened British control over the East India Company.
With reference to the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS), which statements are correct?
I. Launched by Ministry of Earth Sciences
II. Uses 6-km resolution model
III. Developed with UK Met Office
#42. Choose the correct answer:
✅ Correct Answer: 3
🧠 Explanation: BFS was launched in May 2025 by MoES and uses a 6-km grid model. There’s no collaboration with the UK Met Office, so III is incorrect.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections (2024–25)?
-
It recommended constitutional amendments to align Lok Sabha and Assembly election cycles.
-
It suggested setting up a single electoral roll for all elections.
-
Its recommendations are binding on the Election Commission.
#43. Options:
✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
📘 Explanation:
-
✅ Statement 1: The committee recommended synchronizing LS State elections using constitutional amendments.
-
✅ Statement 2: Proposed unified electoral roll to reduce duplication between EC and State Election Commissions.
-
❌ Statement 3: Recommendations are not binding on the Election Commission of India (ECI).
#44. Which article of the Constitution deals with the Election Commission of India?
Explanation:
-
1. Article 280 → ❌ Finance Commission
-
2. Article 324 → ✔ Correct – empowers ECI to supervise and conduct elections
-
3. Article 326 → ❌ Refers to adult suffrage
-
4. Article 312 → ❌ All-India Services
#45. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
Answer: A
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are covered from Article 12 to 35.
#46. The term ‘Twin Balance Sheet Problem’ refers to:
Answer: A. Bad loans of banks and over-leveraged corporates
Both corporates and banks were financially stressed, creating a “twin” crisis.
Consider the following international environmental conventions:
-
Minamata Convention
-
Basel Convention
-
Cartagena Protocol
-
Ramsar Convention
#47. Which of the above are legally binding on signatory countries?
Answer: 1) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ramsar is not legally binding, though widely followed.
#48. Which one of the following bodies is not mentioned in the Constitution of India?
Which of the following statements about the new “Agri-Infra 2.0 Scheme” launched in July 2025 is/are correct?
-
It provides interest-free loans to Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs) for cold storage.
-
It merges PM-KISAN and Agri-Infrastructure Fund into a unified platform.
-
It allows private investors to claim direct input subsidies via DBT.
#49. Select the correct answer:
Correct Answer: ✅ A. 1 and 2 only
📘 Explanation:
-
✅ Statement 1 is correct: The Agri-Infra 2.0, launched in July 2025, focuses on cold storage, primary processing, and logistics infrastructure, and gives interest-free or subsidized loans to FPOs and cooperatives.
-
✅ Statement 2 is correct: The platform now integrates PM-KISAN with Agri-Infrastructure Fund, offering a unified dashboard for farmers to apply for schemes.
-
❌ Statement 3 is incorrect: Direct input subsidies to private investors via DBT is not allowed under this scheme; it’s still routed through farmer-centric models.
#50. Which of the following technologies is most relevant for developing pest-resistant transgenic crops?
Answer: 1) RNA interference (RNAi)
Used in Bt brinjal, GM cotton to silence specific pest genes.
#51. The Reserve Bank of India’s inflation target for the period 2021–2026 is:
Answer: B
Explanation: RBI’s Monetary Policy Framework targets 4% inflation with a tolerance band of ±2%.
#52. The term ‘Western Disturbances’, crucial for Indian winter crops, originates from:
Answer: 2) Mediterranean region
They are extra-tropical storms that bring winter rain to north India.
#53. Disguised unemployment is most commonly found in:
Answer: A. Agriculture
In Indian agriculture, more workers are engaged than required → low productivity.
Science & Technology
#54. What is the purpose of the Lagrange points in space missions?
Correct Answer: 3
Lagrange Points = Stable points due to balanced gravitational forces.
Ethics
#55. Which of the following best defines Integrity in public administration?
Correct Answer: 2
Integrity = Doing the right thing even when unsupervised.
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Revolt — Leader
-
Sanyasi Rebellion — Debi Singh
-
Santhal Rebellion — Sidhu and Kanhu
-
Munda Rebellion — Birsa Munda
#56. Select the correct answer:
#57. Which of the following rivers does NOT form a delta before entering the sea?
Which of the following are considered greenhouse gases under the Kyoto Protocol?
-
Carbon dioxide
-
Methane
-
Nitrous oxide
-
Sulphur hexafluoride
-
Water vapor
#58. Select the correct answer using the code below:
Answer: 2) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(Water vapor is not listed under Kyoto Protocol GHGs.)
#59. Which of the following items are included in the Capital Account of BoP?
-
➡️ Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
FDI and ECBs are part of the Capital Account, while exports and imports belong to the Current Account of Balance of Payments (BoP).
#60. Which of the following parameters is NOT used to evaluate MPs for the Sansad Ratna Award?
🟩 Answer: 3
📝 Explanation:
The Sansad Ratna Award emphasizes legislative performance inside Parliament—debates, questions, and bills.
While constituency work (like MPLADS spending) is important, it is not a core evaluation criterion for this award.
#61. Which Indian state government launched the ‘CM‑FLIGHT’ foreign‑language training scheme?
✅ Correct Answer: 4
🧠 Explanation: Assam introduced the CM-FLIGHT scheme to train youth in languages like Japanese, German, and Arabic for overseas employment.
#62. Which of the following temple towns was not a capital city of the Cholas?
While Thanjavur, Gangaikonda Cholapuram, and Uraiyur were all capital cities of the Cholas at different times, Chidambaram was a major religious and cultural center, not a political capital. It is famous for the Nataraja Temple, but was not used as a Chola capital.
#63. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Forex reserves?
Answer: C. Forward Contracts with IMF
Forex reserves = FCA + Gold + SDR + IMF Reserve Position.
History
#64. During whose reign was the Vikrama Samvat calendar started?
Correct Answer: 2
Vikrama Samvat is associated with Chandragupta II (Gupta emperor).
#65. Which organization releases the ‘World Economic Outlook’ report?
➡️ Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO) report, providing analysis of global economic trends and forecasts. It is a key source for UPSC current affairs.
#66. Which of the following best explains the “Wagner’s Law” in public finance?
Answer: B
Explanation: Wagner’s Law states that as an economy develops, the role of the public sector grows disproportionately.
#67. Which of the following Indian regions is most vulnerable to GLOF events?
The Indian Himalayan Region (IHR) has many glaciers and glacial lakes, making it the most vulnerable to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) due to melting ice and unstable natural dams.
History – Quit India Movement
#68. Which one of the following was a unique feature of the Quit India Movement (1942)?
✅ Correct Answer: B. It involved parallel governments in some regions
📘 Explanation:
-
The Quit India Movement was leaderless after mass arrests.
-
Parallel governments were formed in places like:
-
Ballia (U.P.), Tamluk (Bengal), and Satara (Maharashtra)
-
-
❌ Muslim League opposed the movement.
-
❌ British Labour Party support came later (not during QIM).
#69. Which country recently became the 99th member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
✅ Correct Answer: b) Greece
💡 Explanation:
Greece became the 99th country to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in July 2024. The ISA is an Indian initiative to promote solar energy globally. This move strengthens global efforts toward clean and renewable energy.
#70. How do methods like point counts and acoustic recording complement each other in bird censuses?
Which of the following is/are NOT correct about the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978)?
-
Restored the term ‘Cabinet’ in Article 352
-
Made it easier to declare Emergency
-
Restored Fundamental Rights curtailed by 42nd Amendment
#71. Select the correct answer:
Answer: A
Explanation: The 44th Amendment made it harder to declare Emergency and restored rights.
#72. Which river originates in India and flows through Pakistan and is a subject of the Indus Water Treaty?
✅ Correct Answer: B. Chenab
📘 Explanation:
The Chenab River originates in Himachal Pradesh, flows through Jammu & Kashmir, and enters Pakistan.
It’s covered under the Indus Water Treaty (1960) — Chenab is one of the western rivers allocated largely to Pakistan.
#73. The ‘First Round Table Conference’ (1930) was boycotted by:
Answer: B
Explanation: INC boycotted it as the Civil Disobedience Movement was ongoing.
#74. Which of the following are capital receipts of the Government of India?
#75. In the context of philosophy, which of the following schools believed in atomism and denied the existence of soul?
Answer: A
Explanation: Charvaka school is materialistic and denies the existence of soul and afterlife.
#76. The ‘PM-eBus Sewa Scheme’ aims to:
Answer: B
Explanation: It supports procurement of electric buses for public transport.
#77. Which of the following countries is NOT crossed by the Equator?
Answer: 4. Mexico
Explanation:
Equator passes through 13 countries, including Ecuador, Kenya, and Indonesia — but not Mexico, which is in the Northern Hemisphere.
#78. Which is NOT a function of RBI?
➡️ Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Long-term agri-credit is handled by NABARD, not RBI. RBI’s core functions include currency issuance, forex management, and monetary policy.
Consider the following powers of the President of India:
-
Sending back an advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
-
Declaring national emergency without cabinet recommendation
-
Vetoing a constitutional amendment bill
#79. Which of the above is/are correct?
Answer: 1) 1 only
National emergency requires cabinet approval; constitutional amendments cannot be vetoed.
#80. Which of the following is not part of the government’s strategy for fiscal consolidation?
✅ Correct Answer: 2. Increase in revenue expenditure
Explanation:
-
1. Disinvestment in PSUs → ✔ Yes, reduces fiscal burden by selling government stake.
-
2. Increase in revenue expenditure → ❌ No, this increases the fiscal deficit and contradicts fiscal consolidation.
-
3. Monetization of assets → ✔ A method to generate non-tax revenue.
-
4. Rationalization of subsidies → ✔ Helps reduce unnecessary spending.
Which of the following features in the Constitution are borrowed from the Australian Constitution?
-
Concurrent List
-
Freedom of Trade and Commerce
-
Procedure for Constitutional Amendments
-
Language of the Preamble
#81. Choose the correct answer:
Explanation:
-
Concurrent List & Free Trade: From Australia
-
Procedure for amendments: Mostly Indian innovation
-
Preamble’s language: Inspired by the US Constitution, not Australian.
#82. Which Southeast Asian empire was targeted by Rajendra Chola I’s naval expeditions?
Rajendra Chola I launched successful naval expeditions against the Srivijaya Empire (located in present-day Indonesia and Malaysia), showcasing the Cholas’ maritime strength and expanding their influence in Southeast Asia.
#83. What is the architectural style of Brihadeshwara Temple?
The Brihadeshwara Temple is built in the Dravidian architectural style, characterized by pyramidal towers (vimanas), large gopurams, and intricate carvings, typical of South Indian temple architecture.
#84. Which provision of the Indian Constitution reflects its quasi-federal nature?
Answer: D. Division of Powers
Division of powers between Union and States makes India federal, but with a strong center (quasi-federal).
#85. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution?
Answer: B. Right to Property
Right to Property was removed from FRs by the 44th Amendment (1978).
The ‘Balance of Payments’ (BoP) of a country includes:
-
Current Account
-
Capital Account
-
Financial Account
#86. Select the correct answer:
Answer: D
Explanation: BoP includes Current Account + Capital Account + Financial Account.
#87. Which of the following hybrid tomato varieties developed by IIHR, Bengaluru is known for triple disease resistance?
🟩 Answer: 3
📝 Explanation:
Arka Rakshak is India’s first hybrid tomato resistant to three major diseases:
-
Bacterial Wilt
-
Tomato Leaf Curl Virus (ToLCV)
-
Early Blight
It is a major breakthrough in tomato breeding.
IR – India-Middle East-Europe Corridor (IMEC)
#88. What is the main strategic goal of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC)?
✅ Correct Answer: A. To provide an alternative to China’s Belt and Road Initiative
📘 Explanation:
-
IMEC is an India-US-EU-backed corridor announced at the G20 Summit (2023).
-
Connects India → Middle East → Europe via ports, rail, energy grids.
-
Aims to counter China’s Belt & Road Initiative (BRI) in influence and connectivity.
#89. Which among the following is the largest source of renewable energy in India?
#90. NISAR, a joint satellite mission by NASA and ISRO, is primarily designed to:
🟩 Answer: 3
📝 Explanation:
NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is an Earth observation satellite that uses L-band and S-band radar to monitor:
-
Forest cover
-
Ice sheets & glaciers
-
Agricultural land
-
Earthquakes & surface deformation
#91. Which of the following statements is correct regarding FRBM Act (2003)?
Answer: B. Ensuring intergenerational equity
👉 FRBM’s main goal is fiscal discipline & intergenerational equity.
#92. The ‘Global Innovation Index (GII)’ is released annually by which organization?
🟩 Answer: 3
#93. Which of the following best describes the ‘Recessionary Gap’ in macroeconomics?
#94. Parametric insurance has been promoted in India primarily for:
In India, parametric insurance is mainly used in agriculture to provide quick payouts during weather-related crop losses, helping reduce the government’s subsidy burden under traditional crop insurance schemes.
#95. Which are components of M3 (Broad Money)?
➡️ Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
M3 includes: Currency with the public + Demand deposits + Time deposits. It is the broadest measure of money supply used by RBI.
#96. Which term best describes economic activities based on creativity and IP?
✅ Correct Answer: 2
🧠 Explanation: The Orange Economy refers to industries based on culture, creativity, design, and IP like art, film, and software. Others relate to environment (green), marine (blue), or recycling (circular).
#97. Which Governor-General is associated with ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?
Answer: B. Lord Dalhousie
👉 Annexed states where ruler died without male heir.
#98. The ‘Permanent Settlement’ system of land revenue was introduced by:
Answer: B. Lord Cornwallis
Permanent Settlement (1793) fixed land revenue permanently in Bengal.
#99. Who was the founder of the Imperial Chola dynasty in the 9th century CE?
Vijayalaya Chola founded the Imperial Chola dynasty in the 9th century CE by capturing Thanjavur, marking the revival of Chola power in South India.
#100. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) was enacted in:
Answer: C. 2016
IBC was introduced in 2016 for faster resolution of stressed assets.
⬅️ DAILY 20 TEST